The CDC definition of maternal mortality is much more expansive than the rest of the world.
Because they’re a bunch of go-it-alone cowboys, who reject the value of consistent measurement internationally, thinking they know better?
Or because they intentionally choose to overstate the problem, the better to acquire more funds for their projects?The definitions
[T]he definition of maternal mortality that the CDC gives on their site:
For reporting purposes, a pregnancy-related death is defined as the death of a woman while pregnant or within 1 year of pregnancy termination—regardless of the duration or site of the pregnancy—from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental or incidental causes.
And here’s the definition from the WHO:
Maternal death is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the duration and site of the pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management but not from accidental or incidental causes.Maternal deaths up 42 days vs up to 1 year after giving birth.
Back when Obamacare was being debated, a friend of mine insisted we needed some kind of "Eurocare" because America's newborn death rate was so high. Shortly afterwards, I ran across the reason our death rate was so high compared to other countries: the differences in the definitions of "live birth." We count a lot of births as "live" that other countries do not: premature births, badly deformed children, multiple births, and even stillborns that other countries would not count as being born.
I brought this to his attention, and it made no difference to him. The only statistics that made any difference to him were the ones on his side. When they stopped being on his side, he simply ignored them.
My guess on the CDC's use of this statistic is that not only is it for rent-seeking, it is also for building a case for the next of phase of advocating for a complete government take over health care in the US.